Claim:
Hungary’s antisemitic legislation was forced upon the country by the Third Reich
Rebuttal:
The claim is false. At the time antisemitic laws were passed between 1938 and 1941, the Germans didn’t demand anything like this – moreover, German racist laws were actually more lenient than the Hungarian ones.
In detail:
Up till 1942 there is not written document to imply that the Third Reich demanded Hungary to carry out any antisemitic measures. On the other hand, the relevant laws in Hungary defined who counts as a Jew more strictly than in Germany and allowed for fewer exceptions. The Nuremberg laws didn’t apply to those who only had 1 Jewish grandparent, while in Hungary these individuals were also affected. In Germany, you were exempt from the laws if you had converted as late as 1935, while in Hungary this date was 1919. The laws in Germany made it possible for Hitler to ’Aryanise’ a wider circle of people and he indeed did so, while governor Horthy could exempt a small set of individuals from the antisemitic laws but couldn’t ’Aryanise’ anyone. Besides, the Hungarian army introduced the term ’person with Jewish relevance’ for individuals who the laws wouldn’t apply to but for example had one Jewish grandparent, or indeed their spouse had one, and had special rules for this set of people, for example excluding them from high command. In contrast, people with one or even two Jewish grandparents were allowed to pursue a career in the Wehrmacht and the SS in Germany.[1]
[1] On the Jewish policy of Hungary see: Randolph L. Braham: A népirtás politikája I–II. Budapest, 1997 Belvárosi, while on public opinion in the question (also after 1989) Karsai László (szerk.): Kirekesztők. Antiszemita írások 1881-1992. Aura, Budapest, 1992. és Karsai László (szerk.): Befogadók. Írások az antiszemitizmus ellen. Aura, Budapest, 1993.
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